I received a letter from my Consultant today following my diagnosis on 19th Feb.
There is some jargon in it I don't fully understand, I could ring the helpline but thought it would be quicker to ask the more experienced people on this site.
What does an "elevated acute phase response with a plasma of 1.85 mean????? Is it to do with inflammation levels? He is also says he "thinks" I have RA.....
Sorry if I'm being a bit dumb and if this question is not appropriate, I will contact his Secretary for clarification, but I'm a bit baffled.