My PSA has risen over nearly 5.5 years since my prostatectomy from Undetectable to 0.3. I was referred to an RO who, after reviewing my test results and prior history, indicated that there were some "cells left behind" near the prostate bed, even though they tried to get at them unsuccessfully during the surgery. He said this was not uncommon. I had a good surgery in that I went with an undetectable PSA for several years. However, it was interesting and a bit disconcerting to hear the comment about cells left behind. My assumption is that it is those cells, which gradually contribute to rising PSA.
Given my intermediate risk level (Gleason 7_4+3), the fact that I had a prostatectomy five years earlier, but now I have a rising PSA which has reached 0.3, they recommended both a PSMA PET Scan and a Pelvic MRI. The proposed treatment plan is a course of 34 radiation treatments plus six months of Orgovyx.
Nothing was found in the PSMA PET Scan. In the Pelvic MRI, the finding reads "The prostate and seminal vesicles are absent secondary to known prostatectomy, there is no residual prostatic tissue."
How could there have been some cells left behind, but yet the MRI states ''no residual prostatic tissue''? Are we dealing with microscopic cells? Is the principal driver for taking action now the rising PSA? Does this MRI inform the scope and length of the treatments?
Thank you in advance.