From what we all observe here, most general practitioners and some neurologist are not approaching the treatment of RLS according to what is now the accepted protocol. But who is asking why?
For many of us we just want to get better and this question does not matter. But for some who are concerned about a system that is doing a horrible job of helping people with this problem - or just looking for a question to ponder as they pass the sleepless hours - we ask why.
It could be that the doctors don’t know about RLS and the change in the treatment protocol. This is what many here assume. But it could be something else as well.
What if they do know what needs to be done but for other reasons - administrative within the hospital and their own financial interests - they are choosing not to follow the proper protocol.
As I understand it, the current protocol is basically this: take people off dopamine agonists, the patient then has severe withdrawal symptoms, try iron infusions, try gabapentin, then try pregabalin, and if necessary move to a low dose of an opioid.
The above approach, though medically indicated presents the following problems for the doctor:
First she likely risks being discovered for having made a mistake for continuing you on the dopamine agonist, or worse increasing the dose, after it was no longer the accepted protocol. To large part she risks you knowing that all the hell you are about to go through was in large part her fault. This triggers complaints and possibly legal actions against her. So there is a strong incentive to avoid this. She can “kick the can down the road” by increasing the DA or referring you to someone else. She will have fewer complaints.
Also, the process of taking you off the DAs, having you suffer withdrawals, and then trying other treatments, it doesn’t fit well into the profitable model of 15 minute consultations in high volume. You will be calling repeatedly seeking help. Falling outside the preferred 15 minute high-volume model causes the doctor to be disfavored by her employer and prevents advancement ($$$$) within the current model of health care delivery.
Finally, if she follows the required protocol, she will probably need to order iron infusions and possibly opioids. This will draw huge attention to her practice as these treatments are also disfavored by managed care. Again thwarting her advancement in the system of corporate medicine.
So, we all observe that in most cases the doctor does not do what is required to effectively treat the condition. And, digging deeper we see that in most cases the doctor has a huge disincentive to do what is required. So, is it lack of knowledge or something else?