From reading blogs on the site, I understand that b12, b9 and iron have to be in balance with intrinsic factor to enable b12 to be absorbed in the ileum.
If this is the case, why, on the NHS site does it have a list of symptoms for b9 deficiency that differ from those for b12?
Wouldn’t b12 deficiency occur if ones diet was devoid of b9?
I say this because I see men in particular overdosing on meat but avoid vegetables. My father in law regularly consumes the meat in restaurants and his plate goes back with veg untouched. In addition, I regularly hear men stating that they cannot stand salad and never eat it.
As a vegetarian verging on vegan, I understand completely why I became b12 deficient especially as my doctor prescribed omaprezole for me for over 6 years and I now ensure that I get enough b12 in my diet in addition to having injections from my gp. But what about the many people- especially males - who must be b9 deficient will they not become b12 deficient eventually?
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Alfabeta
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No. Iron and folate have no influence whatsoever on the absorption of B12.
That's why you can be deficient in folate but not B12.
One of the causes of low B12 - Pernicious Anaemia or, to be exact, Autoimmune Metaplastic Gastric Atrophy - can also hinder the absorption of iron, folate and Vitamin D. So if you have AMGA you will be deficient in B12 and probably those other three as well.
You can get folate from non-plant sources. So 200 g of liver contains about 500 mcg. 100 g of shrimp has about 50 mcg. 200g of salmon about 50 mcg. One egg about 30 mcg.
And they must eat some non-meat stuff. Like Weetabix (62 mcg per biscuit).
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