I don't like not understanding things (there is a lot I don't like) and when the Scottish and English trials into the efficiency of the Pfizer and Oxford vaccines show the Oxford one to be slightly more effective in practice, I wondered why the original tests before they were approved showed the Pfizer vaccine significantly more effective.
Read an interesting article yesterday that explained the original vaccine tests did not compare like for like. Pfizer accounted for those with symptoms only whilst the Oxford tested everyone (both symptomatic and asymptomatic). If this is correct and given we now know there is significant number of people that are either asymptomatic or have such mild symptoms they do not believe they have Covid, these people wouldn't have registered as having Covid using the Pfizer tests and would have registered in the Oxford tests. It appears the answer was there all the time.