I've posted some background before about my OH's situation, but there's alot of us here, so I'm providing some background again before asking for advice/comments/. Sorry for the long post!
My OH is 66, and had classic symptoms of PMR for three months, starting June 2018, - severe and debilitating bilateral pain in neck, shoulders & upper arms, less severe pain in hips. Just days before the onset of the pain, he had severe pain in his right thigh, he thought he had torn a muscle. It was far worse than any other pulled/torn muscle he's had, he is (was!) a regular 5 a side football player and has had many - he couldnt lift his leg up without the aid of his arms. An ultrasound scan showed it to be a bag of unknown fluid (bursitis or synovitis) which the GP said couldnt be drained as it was between a main artery and nerve.
No intervention helped at all with the pain in upper body - osteopath, chiropractor, physiotherapist and massage every day (by me). He had the ESR CRP blood test - it was normal.
Previous to all this he had lost weight (2 stone in about a year) and had had pain in shoulders for about two-three years - which he had put down to a frozen shoulder.
He then developed symptoms in early October - three months after severe upper body pain, that could have been GCA (headache, sore and pressured temples, blurry vision), which led to the suspicion it might be PMR/GCA despite no inflammatory markers.
His GP started him on pred at 50mg, and referred him to rheumy, but didnt get an appt for three weeks. The pred did its magic. From being unable to get out of bed one day, to minimal pain the next. Over the next few days, the pain more or less disappeared completely.
Fast forward three weeks. Rhemuy did more tests (bruits, peripheral pulses and subclavian steal) which all came back normal. As a result of this, rheumy is not convinced it is GCA at all- good news. But neither is she convinced of PMR - "PMR is a possibility with his symptoms although things are complicated by having had the right thigh injury". She suggested he reduce to 40mg immediately, then reduce by 10mg every 2 weeks till he reaches 20mg and then will see him again. He did three days of 45mg before reducing again to 40mg for 8 days, and has today reduced to 35mg. So tapering is slower than she suggested, but I insisted he did it more slowly after reading everything you've all shared. I understand she wants it down fast because she thinks its not GCA and therefore on high dose pred un-necessarily.
He still gets pressured temples, sore scalp, and blurry vision. He's now getting pimple like spots on temples which are itchy and very sore to touch.
I can't understand why the diagnosis for PMR isnt clear cut. It seemed to me to be classic symptoms of PMR, especially when they disappeared, miraculously, the day after taking the pred. As far as I am aware, nothing else responds so quickly, or completely.
Where does this leave us? If its not PMR, what is it? What about his visual symptoms?
Has anyone else experienced this uncertainty?