I got my 4th shot two days ago. I had been waiting for the bivalent (Omicron Ba.5 + Wuhan-Hu-1) since only Omicron is out there now. I also waited for the Moderna version since it is a higher dose, as discussed in various posts before.
This recent report found side effects are useful, although they did not present the data easily. Importantly there was still a response absent side effects so most likely no worries if it didn't happen. This seems to have tested only the original vaxes, not bivalents
I was hoping to feel ill afterwards to know my WBCs are watching. I got my wish, fever at 100F, light flu like, etc for the next day. Different from the usual MPN malaise. Better that than getting infected (we had Covid early 2020, a super bad near death experience.) Also lots of injection site pain, same as the Shingles shot.
My 1st three Pfizer shots had very few effects.
For dose- Moderna is 50mcg, Pfizer is 30mcg each split 50/50 for each Covid variant so Moderna has 25 of Wuhan-Hu-1 and 25 of Ba.5, Pfizer has 15 of each:
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From this report ( I meet the last two criteria, are other members matching some of these criteria?) Younger and Moderna make sense, but the other correlations are not clear.
"symptoms were associated with younger age, female sex, prior infection, and the mRNA-1273 (Original Moderna) vaccine... systemic (thru the whole body vs injection site pain) symptoms remained associated with greater antibody response in multivariable-adjusted models"
No side effects does not mean no response, "In this generalizable cohort, nearly all participants exhibited a positive antibody response to complete mRNA vaccine series." But they found less.
jamanetwork.com/journals/ja...
In this figure (not well laid out) the lower bar of each pair is the better response so for example "local symptoms only" in the 2nd text line has way less response than "Systemic..." in the 3rd line.
But I can't figure it out as there are too many variables.