Tested positive for Chlamydia throat, please advise

[Hit1471]

Dear All,

I got tested positive for Chlamydia throat two weeks ago. I question the validity of the test, I have no symptoms whatsoever. I know that no symptoms means I can still have an infection but still I am going on a gut feeling.

I recently asked the nurse if I can still part take in unprotected oral, and protected vaginal sex, as the infection was apparently positive in the throat, and not anywhere else, the urine and bloods were all negative. The answer I received was that I could not part take in the above, and not even mutual masturbation until I am negative.

Can anyone comment on this? Lets say the test was accurate and I had Chlamydia in the throat, what is the risk factor in part taking in the above activities, especially since everything else was clear, as long as I avoid any mouth contact?

Any further advice anyone?

Thanks in advance

[Lipstick911]

Surely 1) get another test ? 2) take antibiotics anyway that you were prescribed.. then once course is complete you can resume partaking in sexual activities- it is 7 day course of treatment

[selonuk]

I am confused as to why you would want to engage in unprotected oral sex when you tested positive in your throat but say protected vaginal sex?

For the sake of a week do you really want to put someone else at risk by engaging in sexual activity? Afterall you could pass it to someone who doesn't know and doesn't get tested for months and actually passes it back to you!

It is very common to have Chlamydia without having symptoms so don't think that because you don't have symptoms that the test is wrong a false positive result is rare these days.

[Hit1471 in reply to selonuk]

If you read my post again, I acknowledge the fact that you can test positive without symptoms, I have no intention of putting anyone else at risk, that is why I am posting this question. My point is how do I put someone at risk when the infection is in the throat and not in the urine in the activity of unprotected oral sex? Do you get my point? If the infection is located in the throat, then how would another person giving oral sex contract Chlamydia if there is no Chlamydia in the urine? According to my research Chlamydia can only be passed on via unprotected activity if the presence of the infection is there, so I don't understand why the doctor has advised even against even mutual masturbation, which means no ejaculating on another persons body, this makes no logical sense whatsoever and I wanted someone to explain this. Surely I am ok to at least have an erotic massage with a happy ending at the very minimum, how is that putting someone at risk?

[Galen70 in reply to Hit1471]

Mutual masturbation should carry zero risk of transmission. Most UK sexual health clinics dont test for chlamydia in the throat in heterosexuals due to low carriage rate.