I have had 1 sexual partner for nearly 9 years. I have had no symptoms of chlamydia. I have a 4 year old with my current partner and she was

clear of chlamydia pre natal. She was also clear in 2010. I believe that she has had no sexual contact with another person. I believe that I may have contracted it prior to meeting her. In the last 6 months she was tested positive for the disease. Is it possible for her to have contracted this from me after all these years

4 Replies

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  • I do not think this is possible?

  • If you've both been treated it's best to stop worrying about how and where the Chlamydia came from and forget about it!

    Not all tests are 100% accurate and "false positives" can occur, this is where somebody doesn't have Chlamydia but the test comes up as positive.

    Another possibility is contamination, the Chlamydia test picks up TINY amounts of Chlamydia so its possible that the swab/urine test may have have come into contact with someone else's Chlamydia (say if you did the test in a clinic toilet), it can happen in the lab too but this is rare.

    Basically, you'll probably never know and it really isn't worth worrying about.

  • Interesting. Definitely a possibility but the questions may make one's head explode. OP should probably move on. peerdiagnosis.com/fluid-on-...

  • By any chance even tho u no she hasn't bin sexually active.

    Have u bin esle where ? Cos then u need to warn others.

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