A question for anyone who has found an answer...
From 2018, when diagnosed, I have been told by doctors, urologists and oncologists that; "Testosterone, in prostate cancer, is like gasoline on a fire!"
When I first heard this it seemed dubious since what I "knew" about PCa was that young men with high T did not get it and that older men with declining T did get it. So it seemed that testosterone might actually be protective rather than something to be feared and eradicated.
Later on I learned ---
* That young men in their late 20s, who had lost their lives in gang violence, on autopsy showed lots of cancer but not active cancer.
* that a researcher at John-Hopkins found that men with the highest DHT at diagnosis survived longer. (Higher DHT - higher T)
* that Dr. A. Morganthaler had given hundreds of men with cancer testosterone without any serious blow-ups in their disease.
We all know that depriving PCa of T kills cancer cells and reduces symptoms-- the basis of ADT -- but despite doing a lot of reading about PCa and its treatments I have never come across any definitive study or evidence showing that PCa was aggravated by T except for the paper by Fowler and Whitmore.
The "gasoline" theory leads to a "castration" treatment bias whether by orchiectomy, Lupron or estrogen. May patients are led to extreme measures and try to suppress every molecule of T throughout their body -- ala the "Triple Androgen Blockade".
So, where did this "gasoline" theory come from?
Is there any hard evidence that testosterone by itself drives or exacerbates the disease?
As far as I can tell...
* It was Huggins who (suggested) that testosterone might act as "fuel" for PCa.
* It seemed "reasonable" that if denying PCa testosterone improved symptoms, that the converse - providing T - would aggravate them.
* And also, the idea that since estrogen -- the "female" hormone -- was the important factor in uterine and breast cancer; testosterone-- the "male" hormone-- must be the important fact in prostate cancer.
But a paper by Prout and Brewer in 1967 who gave testosterone to 34? patients found "the effect of exogenous testosterone on patients with advanced prostatic carcinoma is neither clear-cut nor predictable in many instances." ------ There was no mention of gasoline-like responses.
For "evidence", I was left with the 1981 paper by Fowler and Whitmore who had given testosterone to some? of their patients from 1949 to 1967 and found that many of them had an immediate worsening of their symptoms and that eventually all of the previously treated patients did so. The only "holdouts" were four patients without prior treatment (two of whom actually improved with testosterone.)
So ... is that it? A few "reasonable", "rational" assumptions and then the results of Fowler and Whitmore provide the main supporting evidence for the testosterone "gasoline" theory?