So went looking for the bit in guidelines about how Doctors should take into account patients views etc before reducing dose.
Started to read their justification for treating based on TSH and their stating TSH should be in range and not suppressed.
So as previous posts, GP having hissy fit of TSH 0.01, and reduced my px without my agreement, after I informed her of my self sourcing T3, she had never heard of it.
Oh learned ones , please help it make sense, TRH (hypothalamus) stimulates TSH (pituitary ) right? stimulates Thyroid to produce T4 right?
So when there is no Thyroid to be stimulated to produce T4 , so the HPT axis is open ended.
Levo is substituted , right?
So , all things being equal , and neuro transmitters being sneaky little blighters is the answer to life the universe and everything , actually 42?
No seriously, why do they just look at TSH to decide if you are under or over replaced. Where is the actual evidence that suppressed TSH is bad, I could understand maybe if I had a thyroid and was relying on it for T4 and therefore suppressed TSH would result in what ? under production / over production.
Need to understand so I can confidently argue my case against the astounding ignorance of GP's. Surely without a Thyroid the axis is defunct , or at least the formula which is used to assess treatment, am I right or am I wrong Please Help