Sorry, it’s the usual question … for context, I was diagnosed in 2020; successfully tapered to almost zero over a year or so, then had a flare. Since then I’ve been hovering around the 1.5 - 3 mark: more because of other health and stress issues which made me pause the tapering, and which made me a bit jumpy about any hint that the PMR was grumbling, rather than any strong PMR symptoms. Recently I’ve been suffering twinges of stiffness in my lower back, glutes, and down the back of my thighs; and because I was also struggling to get rid of a heavy cold, I decided to do the flare protocol. I’m back now on 3mg and the cold is almost gone, but the extra pred didn’t seem to make any difference to the back and leg pain. Does this mean it was never PMR in the first place? I have to say the pain is not like the PMR pain I originally had, which was in my shoulders; also the original pain did the classic thing of coming on when I was sleeping, whereas this pain comes on when I’m active.
Thank you for reading and responding