About 10 days ago when I went to pick up a prescription re-order,I was asked by the lady serving me if I had a few spare minutes to talk to the ""pharmacist"" about my medication-""No problem"" I replied and was ushered in to the inner sanctum of the pharmacy and was asked several general questions about my use of my medication,was I aware of any ""over the counter"" medicines ?-this ,I thought, was the main reason for the chinwag;to get me to buy more products-but the whole conversation was pleasant enough-now I have received,via the post,a NHS headed 2 part form headed ""Community Pharmacy Medicines Use Review & Prescription Service"" in which a box has been ticked to say I had given ""Oral consent"" to this??-it also has ticked on P2 that I have had no side-effects-to my recollection ,side effects were not even discussed!! Now I know that no harm was done by this ,but why the subtle subterfuge???
What constitutes Oral consent for a ... - Asthma Community ...
What constitutes Oral consent for a ""Medicines Use Review""?
2 Replies
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When taking consent, the being ""being consented"" should have explained to them clearly what they are consenting to, and they should understand any possible outcomes to what they have consented to.
I believe (and I haven't double-checked this) that pharmacies are paid for each medicines use review that they carry out. I might be tempted to have a little word about they way they are taking consent - it doesn't sound as if you were aware that this was the purpose of the interview, which should have been clearly explained to you.
I popped in this afternoon and,surprise,the ""senior"" pharmacist wasnt available.
Selah.
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