I met with my doctor today to discuss my recent biopsy. Originally diagnosed with G3+3 in 2017, then upgraded to 3+4 with less than 5% G4 in Dec 2022. The last 2 MRIs showed about the same, but then the new biopsy from a week ago stated:
Left Base: G3+4. Carcinoma involves 2 out of 2 cores and comprises 40% tissue. Focal tumor infiltrating fat suspicious for extra-prostatic extension. Perineural invasion identified.
I won't lie, I'm panicking a little bit....
Also in this biopsy:
Left Apex: G3+3 / 5%
Left Mid: G3+4 / 50%
Left Mid: G3+4 / 30%
Right Base: focal high-grade intraepithelial neoplasia (pre-cancerous?)
Questions:
Should I get a 2nd pathology opinion from Johns Hopkins again? Or am I just wasting time at this point?
Should AS be off the table at this point?
Should I move quickly into treatment to stop the spread outside the prostate?
I don't recall my uro mentioning the EPE or PNI in our meeting and he suggested that HIFU was a viable option in my situation. That's confusing to me especially if there's EPE and/or PNI. What am I missing here?
In 2022, Epstein said he wasn't too concerned about the PNI as it didn't exhibit large cribiform morphology. He also stated there was less than 5% G4.
Thanks for any and all input!
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PTvsPC
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I agree with you. If there is indeed EPE, I will get treatment. And in your opinion, what would be the most effective treatment?
At this point, there's no known EPE - just suspicion. It could be scar tissue, for example. The MRI of less than six months ago states no EPE. I know JH will give a better indication of whether or not there is EPE.
Also, I need to know what the % of G4 is. I don't know why Kaiser doesn't provide that information. Providence, who I was with before, also did not provide that information.
This article states that a needle biopsy is not particularly reliable for discovering EPE even with a high level pathology expert. I am sending off the slides to JH in the next few days hopefully.
My doctor told me that a EPE cannot be diagnosed by pathology, only a MRI. But I see a couple posts here saying that a pathology can determine it so I am confused.
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