I don't understand why prednisone is prescribed when prednisolone is available. Why do doctors in the U.S. prescribe prednisone when Medrol is available. If the liver has to convert the prednisone into prednisolone why not just take the prednisolone directly? I suspect that in the U.S. that prednisone has just evolved as the standard and now doctors prescribe it over prednisolone (Medrol) because it is safer for the doctor. Can anyone shed any light on this subject?