Not complaining, I know the doctors need their own precise terms and acronyms, but as a patient (even a reasonably educated one), I struggle to interpret what they're telling me in terms that I understand.
The relevant parts of my PSMA PET scan report were:
1. Intense radiotracer uptake at the left greater than right peripheral zones extending from base to the apex of the enlarged and calcified prostate gland, compatible with known malignancy and correlated with lesions identified on prior MRI 6/16/2022.
2. Intense radiotracer activity at conglomerate and discrete lymph nodes located at the left common iliac chain and left pelvic sidewall, compatible with nodal metastasis. PSMA-RADS-5.
3. Prominent retroperitoneal lymph nodes without elevated radiotracer activity including at the aortocaval region. PSMA-RADS-3A. [PSMA-RADS-3A: Equivocal radiotracer uptake in soft tissue lesions such as lymph nodes in a distribution typical for PCa]
4. Note of subtle activity approximating the left seminal vesicle however without convincing involvement, please correlate with prior anatomic MRI.
And the summary of my current status is:
Stage/Diagnosis:cT3bN1M0 (stage IVA), with pre-treatment PSA of 19.5 ng/mL. He has Gleason 5 + 5 disease and regional disease by NCCN classification
I'm currently in my 4th month of ADT (3-month Eligard injections and 1000mg/d abiraterone), initially planned to last 2 years. I'm set to start proton therapy around 2/1/23.
What brought the question to mind (not for the first time) was Tall Allen's comment in another thread about whether a particular case was considered "curable" or only "treatable." I realize that I don't know the answer to that question in my own case. Of course I should and will pose that question to my doctors, but based on the above, what do you folks think?