Two months after having an MRI scan, I today received a copy of the letter sent to my GP by the neurologist.
It is pretty brief and very disappointing in that it does not actually say whether or not this could be what is causing the neuropathy in my feet.
Please does anyone know how to interpret this jargon:
" At the level of L5 there is a paracentral disc bulge that appears to make contact with the exiting left-sided root. No canal stenosis or any other abnormalities have been identified."
Is this purely a wear and tear age thing? Any feedback greatly appreciated.