An acqauintance told me yesterday he had had a moderate(not TIA) stroke last october.It seems he is now affected by memory and speech problems,which I had noticed, caused by the stroke..... and he was told he had a near miss major stroke. He does not appear to be on an anticog. so i genned him up saying he should go to his GP very soon.Am I missing something or is this gross carelessness on the part of the hospital stroke team?
Oh and he is Nigerian so even at a higher risk!
seems very odd unless he has a serious bleed risk.
It sounded like a straight forward sudden stroke .He had undiagnosed high blood pressure before the stroke he told me and now has Furosimide......for the blood pressure control.I wondered about that too.I know it can be given for blood pressure control.My own blood pressure is not high but higher than my GP would like it to be so 20mg of Furos. keeps it it nicely down. However, mostly other drugs are used for B.P control I gather. Anyway, many thanks BobD and Jo.
Depends whether the stroke was caused by a clot or a bleed.
If it was caused by a clot - I would think there is something seriously questionable. There are other reasons for not taking anti-coagulants but it sounds as though you clued him up so hopefully he will now be able to question his doctor from a more informed perspective.
It depends whether he actually has AF. Most strokes are not caused by AF but by, for instance, atherosclerosis or high blood pressure, and warfarin or other OAC would be inappropriate for them. They might be treated with aspirin or blood pressure medication.
Thank you. Let us hope he is properly medicated for his condition and that his doctor reassures him. I am quite worried on his behalf as he seems rather unworldly.
which side to sleep on
Is it ok to take ubiquinol when taking Apixaban and Bisoprolol also Nature-throid?
Would you say a DOAC is a treatment for AF or not?
Diltiazem with Apixaban
Is it safe to stop taking apixaban for a fortnight without replacing with a similar drug?
