At the time of diagnosis, 29May19, the PSA was only 2.14. I've had Casodex and a 6 month shot of Lupron. This week the PSA is down to 1.2.
Is there any significance to having an aggressive Prostate Cancer despite having a low PSA? Ten years ago my PSA was 1.5, five years ago it was 2.1.
Biopsy: "FINAL DIAGNOSIS UROLOGICALProstate, RM: Adenocarcinoma, Gleason 8 (4+4)"
CT scan: ...lesion in the T6 vertebral body corresponding to increased radiotracer uptake on bone scan, likely representing osseous metastatic disease.
Bone scan: Findings concerning for osteoblastic metastasis involving the T6 vertebral body and right proximal tibia.
I see my MO (first visit) next Monday. It should be a learning experience.
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GranPaSmurf
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What prompted you to have a biopsy? Based on those PSA numbers (2.1) -- ordinarily people would have never had a biopsy in the first place or even be suspected of having prostate cancer. Even hip or joint pain would be thought of as arthritis or aging.
The digital exam was normal 6 months earlier and the PSA at time of diagnosis was the same as it was 5 years earlier and it was just 2.1.. even if G 4+4 -- It still makes you wonder if the bone scan is a false positive or just aging or arthritis.
Hello. My husband has metastatic disease with an undetectable PSA; so yes, I would assume it’s possible with your numbers.
At his worst (2009), John’s PSA was “only” 15 - however, it had tripled to that number in a month. One MO that we saw indicated that some men simply do not express a lot of PSA.
I’m glad that you and your urologist have remained vigilant. All the best to you!
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